The inability to have objective knowledge because that would mean “knowing the thing in itself”, which is according to Kant, unknowable. A pertinent question to ask is why must there be a division between perception and an unknowable “thing in itself”? Is it to protect science as a methodology that requires ongoing skepticism in the form of a deflection against ever arriving at “final truths”? Or, is it rather, as Nietzsche suspected, a means Kant came up with to protect the inviolable nature of some sort of concept of “God”?
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